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Q360 Practice Quiz
Deck General and Safety (Limited). The real paper is 50 questions and you need 35 correct (70%) to pass. There are 370 questions here. Take a mock exam weighted the way the paper is, or drill one topic. Every answer links to the material that settles it.
All 370 questions
Grouped by topic, heaviest first. Click a question to see its answer and the material behind it.
Fire Prevention and Firefighting
53 questions · 22% of the paper
Which is an advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher?
- Greater discharge range ← correct
- Cleanliness
- Noncorrosive
- All of the above
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
- CO2 ← correct
- Water stream
- Water spray
- Foam
Uninspected motor vessels constructed after 25 April 1940, and which use fuel with a flash point of 110°F (43°C), or less, shall have at least what number of ventilator ducts, fitted for the removal of explosive or flammable gases from the bilges of every engine and fuel tank compartment?
- 1
- 2 ← correct
- 3
- 4
How can you prevent the spread of fire by conduction?
- Close all openings to the area
- Remove combustibles from direct exposure
- Cool the bulkheads around the fire ← correct
- Shut off all electric power
Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by which method?
- Radiation
- Conduction
- Convection ← correct
- Spontaneous combustion
Which may ignite fuel vapors?
- Loose wiring
- An open and running motor
- Static electricity
- All of the above ← correct
What is the normal percentage of oxygen in air?
- 16%
- 18%
- 21% ← correct
- 25%
Where would spontaneous combustion most likely to occur?
- In rags soaked in linseed oil ← correct
- In overloaded electrical circuits
- In partially loaded fuel tanks
- In dirty swabs and cleaning gear
An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?
- De-energize the circuit ← correct
- Stop ventilation
- Stop the vessel
- Apply water to extinguish the fire
A magnesium fire is classified as class _________.
- Class A
- Class B
- Class C
- Class D ← correct
A fire in a pile of linen is considered which class of fire?
- Class A ← correct
- Class B
- Class C
- Class D
Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?
- It is used on class B and C fires.
- It is non-conductive.
- It is heavier than air.
- All of the above are true. ← correct
In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST take which action?
- Invert the CO2 extinguisher
- Open the discharge valve
- Squeeze the two trigger handles together
- Remove the locking pin ← correct
When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, why is there a danger of reflash?
- Dry chemical is not an effective agent on Class B fires
- Dry chemical dissipates quickly
- It is rapidly absorbed by the liquid
- Dry chemical agents do little or no cooling ← correct
What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
- Electricity
- Pressure
- Smoke
- Chain reaction ← correct
Which is the most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical extinguisher?
- Shielding of radiant heat
- The CO2 that is formed by heat
- Smothering
- Breaking the chain reaction ← correct
Where would spontaneous combustion most likely to occur?
- In dirty swabs and cleaning gear
- In rags soaked in linseed oil ← correct
- In partially loaded fuel tanks
- In overloaded electrical circuits
Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?
- Water ← correct
- CO2
- Dry Chemical
- Halon
Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.
- worn electrical wires on power tools
- an unprotected drop-light bulb
- careless disposal or storage of material ← correct
- smoking in bed
CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following?
- Smothering ← correct
- Chemical action
- Cooling
- All of the above
Fire extinguishing agents used on class C fires must have which characteristic?
- Non-conducting ← correct
- Non-toxic
- Able to absorb heat
- Water based
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. What should be your FIRST action?
- Start the fire pump
- Batten down the engine room
- Secure the fuel supply ← correct
- Apply carbon dioxide to the fire
Which extinguishing agent is/are suitable to combat a class B fire in an engine compartment?
- Carbon dioxide
- Dry chemical
- Foam
- All of the above ← correct
An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to take which action?
- Apply water to extinguish the fire
- Stop ventilation
- De-energize the circuit ← correct
- Stop the vessel
If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?
- Release the CO2 flooding system
- Secure the ventilation ← correct
- Open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
- Enter and use a portable extinguisher
If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?
- Open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
- Enter and use a portable extinguisher
- Release the CO2 flooding system
- Secure the ventilation ← correct
CO2 mainly extinguishes a fire by which of the following?
- Smothering ← correct
- Chemical action
- Cooling
- All of the above
Which is an advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher?
- Less damage to electrical components
- Greater multipurpose extinguishing ability ← correct
- Lack of toxicity
- Burn-back protection
What is NOT listed on the metallic name plate that is required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers according to uninspected vessel regulations?
- The name of the item
- The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder ← correct
- The rated capacity in gallons, quarts, or pounds
- An identifying mark of the actual manufacturer
In the machinery space of all uninspected motor vessels, there must be one type 20-B hand portable fire extinguisher for which of the following?
- 500 S.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
- 1000 S.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
- 500 B.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof
- 1000 B.H.P. of the main engines or fraction thereof ← correct
What is NOT listed on the metallic name plate that is required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers according to uninspected vessel regulations?
- An identifying mark of the actual manufacturer
- The name of the item
- The rated capacity in gallons, quarts, or pounds
- The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder ← correct
According to uninspected vessel regulations, what is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers required on board a 45-foot motorboat built in 2017 having a fixed fire system on board?
- 1 5-B
- 2 5-B ← correct
- 3 5-B
- 4 5-B
There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, which is the other?
- That it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases
- The lack of cooling effect on heated materials ← correct
- There is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space
- That it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power to the CO2 pump
What is NOT listed on the metallic name plate that is required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers according to uninspected vessel regulations?
- An identifying mark of the actual manufacturer
- The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder ← correct
- The rated capacity in gallons, quarts, or pounds
- The name of the item
How does good housekeeping prevent fires on a vessel?
- Improving personnel qualifications
- Eliminating trip hazards
- Eliminating potential fuel sources ← correct
- Allowing better access in an emergency
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold and catches fire. What should be your FIRST action?
- Secure the fuel supply ← correct
- Apply carbon dioxide to the fire
- Start the fire pump
- Batten down the engine room
Which type of fixed fire-extinguishing system is approved for use on board uninspected vessels?
- Steam smothering
- Chemical foam
- Carbon dioxide ← correct
- Mechanical foam
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
- CO2 ← correct
- Water stream
- Water spray
- Foam
Removing which will extinguish a fire?
- Nitrogen
- Carbon dioxide
- Sodium
- Oxygen ← correct
Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?
- It cools the surface of the liquid.
- It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the fire.
- It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil. ← correct
- It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being applied.
Foam-type portable fire extinguishers are most useful in combating fires involving __________.
- solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber
- flammable liquids ← correct
- electrical equipment
- metallic solids
The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.
- carbon dioxide ← correct
- foam
- water fog
- water stream
What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish a fire in drums of flammable liquids stowed on the weather deck of a vessel?
- Carbon dioxide
- Foam ← correct
- Steam
- Water fog
Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.
- 20 seconds ← correct
- 40 seconds
- one minute
- two minutes
A cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.
- posted with instructions on the operation of the system ← correct
- ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
- painted with red and black diagonal stripes
- equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting
All vessels not required to have a power driven fire pump shall carry __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- a suitable, detachable pump usable for fire fighting purposes
- at least three 2-1/2 gallon fire buckets ← correct
- an emergency hand fire and bilge pump
- not less than three hand fire pumps
Which statement is TRUE concerning fire hose on a small passenger vessel?
- Fire hose shall be at least 3/4" outside diameter.
- One length of fire hose shall be provided for every two fire hydrants.
- All fittings on hoses shall be of steel or other ferrous metal.
- A length of hose with nozzle attached shall be attached to each fire hydrant at all times. ← correct
A length of fire hose shall be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- attached to each fire hydrant at all times ← correct
- equipped with a rotary sprinkler head
- marked with the lot number and wholesale price
- not more than 10 feet in length
If your vessel is required to have a fire ax on board, where should it be located? (small passenger vessel regulations)
- In or adjacent to the primary operating station ← correct
- In below-decks passenger accommodations
- Just outside the engine room access
- In the galley near the stove
Before releasing the CO2 into the space, the alarm for a fixed CO2 system must sound for at least __________.
- 20 seconds ← correct
- 30 seconds
- 40 seconds
- 60 seconds
The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________.
- shield fire fighters from radiant heat
- break up burning material ← correct
- get the most water possible on the fire
- drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters
In battery charging rooms, exhaust ventilation should be provided __________.
- at the lowest point
- near the batteries
- at the highest point ← correct
- only when charging is in progress
A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______.
- water
- foam
- the range hood extinguishing system ← correct
- fire dampers
Vessel Maneuvering and Handling
36 questions · 18% of the paper
You are on a single-screw vessel with a left-handed propeller making no way in the water. How will your vessel react when you apply right rudder?
- Bow will kick to starboard
- Bow will kick to port
- Stern will kick to port, then slowly swing to starboard
- Rudder alone has no effect on the vessel ← correct
Which is a predictable result of a vessel nearing a bank or edge of a steep banked channel?
- The vessel will be drawn bodily into the bank unless the engines are stopped
- The bow sheers toward the bank
- The stern is drawn to the bank as the bow sheers off ← correct
- The vessel continues in a straight line, but with greatly reduced maneuverability
While proceeding up a narrow waterway you observe a vessel berthed in the river with slack mooring lines. Which is the most prudent action to take FIRST?
- Call the US Coast Guard
- Reduce the speed of your vessel ← correct
- Give 5 short blasts on the whistle
- Contact the moored vessel
You are making a sharp turn in a channel and using a buoy four points on the bow to gauge your rate of turn. If you observe the buoy moving forward relative to you, what should you do?
- Increase speed
- Increase the rate of turn
- Decrease the rate of turn ← correct
- Maintain a constant rate of turn
Which is the root cause of wake damage to a vessel or structure in a narrow channel?
- Slack mooring lines
- Trim of the vessel
- Excessive speed ← correct
- Improper steering of the vessel
Most of your vessel's superstructure is forward. How will the vessel lie when drifting with no way on?
- With the wind from ahead
- With the wind off the port beam
- With the wind from abaft the beam ← correct
- With the wind off the starboard beam
As a general rule, how will your vessel lie when it is drifting in a locale where there is no current?
- With the wind on the quarter
- The bow to the wind
- The beam to the wind ← correct
- The stern to the wind
You are docking a vessel. When are the wind and current most favorable in this situation?
- When they are crossing your course, both in the same direction
- When they are both setting you on the pier
- When they are both parallel to the pier from ahead ← correct
- When they are crossing your course, in opposite directions to the other
After casting off moorings at a mooring buoy in calm weather, which action should you take?
- Go half ahead on the engines and put the rudder hard right
- Go half ahead on the engines and pass upstream of the buoy
- Go full ahead on the engine(s)
- Back away a few lengths to clear the buoy and then go ahead on the engines ← correct
On a single-screw vessel, when coming port side to a pier and being set off the pier, which action should you take?
- Swing wide and approach the pier so as to land starboard side to
- Approach the pier on a parallel course at reduced speed
- Make your approach at a greater angle than in calm weather ← correct
- Point the vessel's head well up into the slip and decrease your speed
When is the effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel most noticeable?
- When turning
- When going full ahead
- When backing ← correct
- When going slow ahead
The possibility of wake damage can be reduced by following which action?
- Slow down when passing moored vessels ← correct
- Alternate engine speeds
- Apply rudder in both port and starboard directions
- Passing close aboard to the moored vessel
While proceeding up a narrow waterway you observe a vessel berthed in the river with slack mooring lines. Which is the most prudent action to take FIRST?
- Contact the moored vessel
- Reduce the speed of your vessel ← correct
- Give 5 short blasts on the whistle
- Call the US Coast Guard
The possibility of wake damage can be reduced by following which action?
- Slow down when passing moored vessels ← correct
- Apply rudder in both port and starboard directions
- Alternate engine speeds
- Passing close aboard to the moored vessel
Your twin-screw vessel is moving ASTERN with rudders amidships. The starboard screw suddenly stops turning. How will your vessel respond?
- The bow will remain stationary
- The bow will go to port ← correct
- The bow will swing from port to starboard
- The bow will go to starboard
Which is the root cause of wake damage to a vessel or structure in a narrow channel?
- Excessive speed ← correct
- Improper steering of the vessel
- Slack mooring lines
- Trim of the vessel
You are going ahead on twin engines with rudders amidships. Your port engine stalls. To continue your course which action should you take?
- Apply right rudder ← correct
- Keep your rudder amidships
- Increase engine speed
- Apply left rudder
Which is the BEST way to reduce your wake in a narrow channel?
- Shift the weight to the stern
- Apply enough rudder to counter the effect of the current
- Reduce your speed ← correct
- Change your course to a zigzag course
Your vessel is preparing to proceed up a river. Which of the following is true concerning the handling of the vessel in shallow water?
- Steering will be more responsive in shallow water as opposed to deep water
- There will be no difference in the steering of the vessel
- Steering will be sluggish in shallow water as opposed to deep water ← correct
- The steering is sluggish in deep water as opposed to shallow water
Which is a predictable result of a vessel nearing a bank or edge of a steep banked channel?
- The vessel will be drawn bodily into the bank unless the engines are stopped
- The stern is drawn to the bank as the bow sheers off ← correct
- The vessel continues in a straight line, but with greatly reduced maneuverability
- The bow sheers toward the bank
You are proceeding in a channel; your vessel is requiring a significant amount of right rudder and your bow is still falling off to port. What can you conclude from this information?
- Your vessel's turn rate indicator requires calibration
- Your vessel has lost a blade on the screw
- Your vessel is in the deepest section of the channel
- Your vessel is at the outer limits of the channel ← correct
Which expresses the term leeway?
- The lateral movement of a vessel downwind of her intended course ← correct
- The momentum of a vessel after her engines have been stopped
- The displacement of a vessel multiplied by her speed
- The difference between the true course and the compass course
The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full astern until the vessel is dead in the water is known as __________.
- advance
- head reach ← correct
- surge
- transfer
When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over to any point on the turning circle is known as __________.
- advance ← correct
- head reach
- tactical diameter
- transfer
The distance gained in the direction of the original course when you are making a turn is known as __________.
- advance ← correct
- drift
- tactical diameter
- transfer
As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. These voids are known as __________.
- advance
- cavitation ← correct
- edging
- slip
Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has __________.
- headway ← correct
- sternway
- no way on, with engines stopped
- no way on, with engines full ahead
The effect known as "bank cushion" acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel?
- It forces the bow away from the bank. ← correct
- It forces the stern away from the bank.
- It forces the entire vessel away from the bank.
- It heels the vessel toward the bank.
A vessel traveling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to the depth of the water, may set off the nearer side. This effect is known as __________.
- smelling the bottom
- squatting
- bank suction
- bank cushion ← correct
Your vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel. The effect called bank cushion has which effect on the vessel?
- Forces the bow away from the bank ← correct
- Forces the stern away from the bank
- Forces the entire vessel bodily away from the bank
- Decreases the draft at the bow
You notice that your speed has decreased, the stern of your vessel has settled into the water, and your rudder is sluggish in responding. The MOST likely cause is __________.
- mechanical problems with the steering gear
- shallow water ← correct
- loss of lubricating oil in the engine
- current
A vessel proceeding along the bank of a river or channel has the tendency to __________.
- continue in line with the bank
- hug the bank
- sheer away from the bank ← correct
- increase speed
A wedge of water building up between the bow and nearer bank which forces the bow out and away describes __________.
- bank cushion ← correct
- bank suction
- combined effect
- bend effect
When a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas, the vessel is __________.
- broaching
- pitchpoling
- rolling
- yawing ← correct
On a vessel with a single propeller, transverse force has the most effect on the vessel when the engine is put __________.
- full ahead
- full astern ← correct
- half ahead
- slow astern
You are approaching a steamer that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, you must __________.
- compare the rate of drift between the ships ← correct
- install chafing gear on the towline
- secure the bitter end of the towing hawser to prevent loss if the tow is slipped
- have traveling lizards rigged to guide the towline while it is paid- out
Lifesaving and Survival
45 questions · 10% of the paper
Uninspected vessels must have one approved ring life buoy on board if the vessel length is over how many feet?
- 6 feet
- 16 feet
- 26 feet ← correct
- 36 feet
Where must the life jackets be stowed?
- Locked in watertight containers
- In each of the messrooms
- In readily accessible locations ← correct
- Only in the survival crafts
What should you do, following the launching of the survival craft, in an abandon ship scenario?
- Stay in the immediate area ← correct
- Take a vote on the direction in which to go
- Plot a course for the nearest land
- Go in one direction until fuel runs out
If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.
- protect your life preserver by holding it above your head
- wear very light clothing
- keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving headfirst
- enter the water on the windward side of the vessel ← correct
Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely damaged?
- They should be replaced. ← correct
- They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress.
- They can be used for children.
- They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use.
When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, which task must be done to aid in your rescue?
- Transfer all the injured to one raft
- Transfer all supplies to one raft and post a guard
- Separate the rafts by drifting away to increase chances of detection
- Secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart ← correct
Which is TRUE concerning the stowage of life jackets?
- They are always locked in watertight containers
- They are required to be stowed in a central location
- They must be stowed in readily accessible locations ← correct
- They are required to be stowed in messrooms
Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I personal flotation devices)?
- Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used.
- Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
- Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
- Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water. ← correct
Life jackets should be marked with which item?
- The vessel's name ← correct
- The vessel's home port
- The maximum weight allowed
- The stowage space assigned
Which is TRUE concerning the stowage of life jackets?
- They must be stowed in readily accessible locations ← correct
- They are required to be stowed in messrooms
- They are required to be stowed in a central location
- They are always locked in watertight containers
You have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?
- Inflate the liferaft floor.
- Decide on food and water rations.
- Cut the sea painter and clear the vessel. ← correct
- Open the equipment pack.
If you are required to jump from any height from your vessel when should the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit be inflated?
- After entry into the water ← correct
- Only after four hours in the water
- Only after two hours in the water
- Before entry into the water
Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
- Class A
- Class B
- Class C
- Category 1 ← correct
The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.
- weekly
- monthly ← correct
- every 2 months
- every 3 months
The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
- secured inside the wheelhouse
- tested annually
- tested monthly ← correct
- secured in the emergency locker
On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving equipment is carried but not required __________.
- the equipment must be approved by the Commandant ← correct
- it must be removed from the vessel as excess equipment
- it may remain aboard the vessel as excess equipment regardless of its condition
- it must be destroyed in the presence of a marine inspector
For the purposes of distress signaling, small passenger vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must carry __________.
- A radiotelephone
- Three hand red flare distress signals, and three hand orange smoke distress signals ← correct
- A "Very" pistol and flare kit
- An approved noise- making device
Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels on oceans or coastwise routes are required to be what color?
- White
- White or international orange
- Orange ← correct
- Any highly visible color easily seen from the air
The color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires immediate assistance is __________.
- white
- green
- red ← correct
- yellow
Life preservers must be marked with the __________.
- stowage space assigned
- vessel's name ← correct
- vessel's home port
- maximum weight allowed
The life jackets on all vessels shall be __________.
- inspected weekly
- worn at all times
- readily available ← correct
- tested yearly
Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be continued in use on the vessel if __________.
- kept on board no more than 2 years
- inspected and serviced every 6 months
- destroyed if more than 5 years old
- maintained in good and serviceable condition ← correct
The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.
- removing the top half of the shell, cutting the line at its source, and renewing completely
- cutting the line where it enters the case and replacing that portion
- leaving the original line and tying another one to it so the two lines will take the strain
- an approved servicing facility ashore ← correct
According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and trim are called __________.
- loading marks ← correct
- the air draft
- depth marks
- Plimsoll marks
On vessels subject to the provisions of 46 CFR Subchapter T, life jackets shall be __________.
- kept locked up at all times when underway
- stored in convenient places throughout the accommodation spaces ← correct
- inaccessible to passengers
- on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times
On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable liferaft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than __________.
- 50 percent of all persons on board
- 75 percent of all persons on board
- 6 persons ← correct
- 10 persons
Which approved lifesaving device is required for each person on board a motor vessel carrying passengers?
- Buoyant cushion
- Buoyant vest
- Life jacket ← correct
- Ring life buoy
Which lifesaving equipment must be tested monthly?
- Inflatable PFD's
- EPIRB ← correct
- Hydrostatic releases
- Dated batteries
Distress flares and smoke signals are not required on vessels operating on short runs. A "short run" is limited to __________. (small passenger vessel regulation)
- water of less than 20 feet in depth
- where land is always in sight
- no more than 5 miles
- about 30 minutes away from the dock ← correct
Life jackets should be marked with the __________.
- maximum weight allowed
- stowage space assigned
- vessel's home port
- vessel's name ← correct
What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)
- Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants ← correct
- Water-light, painter, and signal mirror
- Water-light and painter only
- Two paddles, painter, and six red flares
Aboard small passenger vessels the number of childrens' life jackets carried must be at least what percentage of the total number of persons aboard?
- 4%
- 7.5%
- 10% ← correct
- 15%
Which equipment is not required for a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)
- Paddles
- Light
- Painter
- Compass ← correct
Life floats and buoyant apparatus may be stowed in tiers, one above the other, to a height of not more than __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- 3 feet
- 4 feet ← correct
- 5 feet
- 6 feet
All life jackets carried on board small passenger vessels are required to be marked __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- with the vessel's name ← correct
- with the vessel's official number
- with the maximum weight to be held by the life preserver
- with the maximum serviceable life of the life preserver
Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet deep?
- The hydrostatic release
- A shear pin
- A rottmer release
- A weak link in the painter ← correct
A vessel carrying passengers for hire shall have on board an approved life jacket __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- for every passenger on board
- for every person on board, plus 10% childrens' life jackets ← correct
- for every person on board, plus 10% additional on upper deck in box
- or buoyant cushion for every person on board plus 10% for children
If your vessel is certificated to carry 10 persons, including both adults and children, how many life jackets are you required to carry on board? (small passenger vessel regulations)
- 11 adult
- 10 adult and 1 child ← correct
- 10 adult and 5 child
- 10 adult
Non-required lifesaving equipment carried as additional equipment aboard small passenger vessels __________.
- must be removed when carrying passengers
- must be approved by the Commandant ← correct
- may be substituted for not more than 5% of the required lifejackets
- may be carried regardless of approval or condition, if in excess of required lifesaving equipment
The painter of the inflatable liferaft has a length of __________.
- 25 feet
- 100 feet ← correct
- 200 feet
- 400 feet
Inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able to carry at least __________.
- 2 persons
- 4 persons
- 6 persons ← correct
- 8 persons
Which vessel is required to carry a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB installed to automatically float free and activate? (small passenger vessel regulations)
- A vessel operating within 3 miles from the coastline in the Gulf of Mexico.
- A vessel operating on the ocean within 5 miles from the coastline.
- A vessel operating beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes. ← correct
- A vessel operating exclusively on inland waters.
Where must the draft marks be placed on a small passenger vessel?
- On each side of the stem
- Near the stern post or rudder post
- At each end of the vessel ← correct
- On each side, amidships
The EPIRB on board your vessel is required to be tested __________.
- weekly
- monthly ← correct
- quarterly
- yearly
Life floats must be equipped with __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- a sea anchor
- a signal mirror
- an EPIRB
- paddles ← correct
Anchoring, Mooring, Berthing and Unberthing
45 questions · 10% of the paper
You are 15 feet off a pier and docking a vessel using only a bow breast line and stern breast line. Once the slack is out of both lines you begin to haul in on the bow breast line. What is the effect on the vessel?
- The bow and stern come in equally closer toward the pier.
- The bow will come in and the stern will go out.
- The stern will come in and the bow will remain the same distance off the pier.
- The bow will come in and the stern will remain the same distance off the pier. ← correct
Which is the BEST action to take if your vessel is dragging her anchor in a strong wind?
- Shorten the scope of anchor cable
- Put over a stern anchor
- Put over the sea anchor
- Increase the scope of anchor cable ← correct
Which statement is TRUE when anchoring in calm water?
- Maintain headway on the vessel when letting go the anchor
- Maintain slight sternway on the vessel while letting go the anchor ← correct
- Let the anchor go with good headway on then go full astern until the vessel is stopped
- Wait until the vessel is dead in the water before letting go the anchor
What effect does lifting the shank of a Stockless anchor that is set on the bottom have?
- The probability of fouling the chain decreases
- The flukes will break free of the bottom ← correct
- The flukes will dig deeper increasing the holding power
- The probability of fouling the chain increases
Which lines primary function is to reduce the fore and aft motion of a docked vessel?
- The bow and stern lines ← correct
- The breast lines
- The quarter breast lines
- The bow cross spring lines
Using a scope of five, determine how many shots of chain you should put out to anchor in 5 fathoms of water?
- 1
- 2 ← correct
- 3
- 5
Which method of adjusting mooring lines is MOST useful for leaving a boat free to rise and fall with the tide?
- Crossing the spring lines ← correct
- Slacking bow and stern lines
- Slacking all forward running lines while keeping all after running lines taut
- Doubling up on spring or breast lines
One shot of anchor chain is equal to how many feet (meters)?
- 6 (1.8 meters)
- 15 (4.6 meters)
- 45 (13.7 meters)
- 90 (27.4 meters) ← correct
When a small craft's anchor fouls in a rocky bottom, how should the first attempt to clear it be made?
- Making the line fast to the bitt and bringing the vessel further forward
- Reversing the angle and direction of pull, with moderate scope ← correct
- Increasing the scope and running slowly in a wide circle with the anchor line taut
- Hauling vertically on the line
When picking up your mooring at the buoy, which is the correct method?
- Approach the buoy with wind and sea abeam
- Approach the buoy with the wind and current ahead ← correct
- Approach the buoy with the wind and current astern
- Stop upwind and up current and drift down on the buoy
Which type of bottom is best suited for holding an anchor of a small boat?
- Mud and clay ← correct
- Rocky
- Sandy
- Gravel
Which is TRUE when you pay out more anchor cable?
- This action decreases the swing of your vessel while at anchor
- This action will decrease the holding power of your anchor
- This action will increase the holding power of your anchor ← correct
- This action will increase the possibility that your vessel will drag anchor
Generally speaking, which is the most favorable bottom for anchoring your vessel?
- Very soft mud
- Rocky with vegetation
- A mixture of mud and clay ← correct
- Loose sand bottoms
While anchoring your vessel, when is the best time to let go the anchor?
- When the vessel is moving slowly astern over the ground ← correct
- When the vessel is dead in the water
- When the vessel is moving fast ahead over the ground
- When the vessel is moving fast astern over the ground
Which type of bottom is best suited for holding an anchor of a small boat?
- Gravel
- Sandy
- Rocky
- Mud and clay ← correct
A metal object on the pier resembling a tree stump and made to receive mooring lines is a __________.
- bight
- bollard ← correct
- chock
- camel
When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends to __________.
- move aft
- move forward ← correct
- move lower
- remain stationary
The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is __________.
- right at the bow
- one-third the length of the vessel from the bow ← correct
- one-half the length of the vessel from the bow
- two-thirds the length of the vessel from the bow
The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed, is called the __________.
- advance
- pivoting point
- tactical diameter ← correct
- kick
The holding capability of an anchor is primarily determined by the __________.
- shape of the anchor
- stowage of the anchor on board
- anchor's ability to dig in ← correct
- size of the vessel and its draft
A chain bridle is used when towing astern because it __________.
- is easy to connect
- provides an effective catenary and absorbs shock due to its weight ← correct
- makes rigging a swivel unnecessary
- prevents the tow from yawing by the drag of the chains in a seaway
A natural fiber rope can be ruined by dampness because it may __________.
- rot ← correct
- shrink
- stretch
- unlay
A metal eye spliced into a wire is called a __________.
- cyclops
- fish eye
- thimble ← correct
- chip
The holding capabilities of an anchor are determined PRIMARILY by the __________.
- design of the anchor
- weight of the anchor
- scope of the anchor chain ← correct
- size of the vessel
What should you do to a line to prevent fraying where it passes over the side of the vessel?
- Worm that part of the line.
- Splice that part of the line.
- Cover it with chafing gear. ← correct
- Install a cleat.
When anchored, increasing the scope of the anchor chain normally serves to __________.
- prevent fouling of the anchor
- decrease swing of the vessel
- prevent dragging of the anchor ← correct
- reduce strain on the windlass
A Danforth lightweight anchor does NOT hold well in which type of bottom?
- Mud
- Grass ← correct
- Sand
- Clay
A post on a dock or wharf used to secure mooring lines or hawsers is called a __________.
- bitt
- bollard ← correct
- cleat
- capstan
The best method of protecting that portion of a fiber anchor line nearest the anchor from chafing on the bottom is by __________.
- using a small scope ratio
- replacing that portion with a short length of chain ← correct
- using a hockle to keep that portion of the anchor line off the bottom
- using a synthetic line
The major components which determine the length of catenary in a deployed anchor cable are water depth, cable tension, and __________.
- environmental forces
- bottom conditions
- cable weight ← correct
- water density
Which line is two-stranded, left-handed small stuff?
- Houseline
- Marline ← correct
- Ratline
- Lagline
Which type of bottom is best suited for holding an anchor of a small boat?
- Mud and clay ← correct
- Rocky
- Sandy
- Gravel
Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is called __________.
- yaw ← correct
- surge
- sway
- roll
Tugs sometimes shackle a length of chain in the towline in order to __________.
- take the wear should the towline drag bottom
- assure that if the towline is overstressed it will part close to the bridle
- prevent the towline from whipping should it part
- put spring in the towline ← correct
Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
- Longitudinal
- Transverse
- Vertical ← correct
- Centerline
The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main deck is called __________.
- draft
- freeboard ← correct
- buoyancy
- camber
Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is called __________.
- list ← correct
- heel
- trim
- flotation
When a sea anchor for a survival craft is properly rigged, it will __________.
- completely stop the survival craft from drifting
- help to prevent broaching ← correct
- prevent the survival craft from pitching
- prevent the survival craft from rolling
In a combination chain and wire rope mooring system, the chain is deployed at the anchor end of the line to __________.
- increase fatigue life
- eliminate the need for mooring buoys
- prevent the anchor from fouling
- increase the catenary ← correct
The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely is __________.
- list ← correct
- heel
- trim
- flotation
A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.
- list
- heel ← correct
- trim
- flotation
The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.
- list
- heel ← correct
- trim
- flotation
With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.
- longitudinal centerline
- center of flotation
- original vertical centerline
- center of buoyancy ← correct
In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.
- center of gravity ← correct
- amidships station
- center of flotation
- geometric center of the waterplane area
With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly above the __________.
- longitudinal centerline
- center of buoyancy ← correct
- original vertical centerline
- center of flotation
Vessel Power Plants and Electrical
32 questions · 10% of the paper
Which is TRUE of outlets in gasoline fuel lines of your small vessel?
- They are permitted for bleeding air from lines
- They are permitted for draining fuel from lines
- They are permitted for drawing fuel samples
- They are prohibited ← correct
Why should storage batteries be charged in a well-ventilated area?
- They emit hydrogen ← correct
- They recharge faster in a well-ventilated space
- Because of the toxic fumes they emit
- They generate heat
Why do spaces containing batteries require good ventilation?
- Ventilation avoids CO2 build up
- Ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation ← correct
- Ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery
- Less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries' charge
How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?
- Covering the batteries in a nonconducting, solid enclosure
- Mounting the batteries in a position as high as possible
- Securing the batteries to vibration reducing mounting brackets
- By natural or mechanical ventilation ← correct
Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to perform which task?
- Start the engines immediately
- Keep ports, doors, windows, and hatches closed
- Ventilate before starting engine ← correct
- None of the above
If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally __________.
- a defective ignition system ← correct
- low lube oil level
- too heavy a load
- weak valve springs
The carburetor is placed on the engine to perform which function?
- To distribute the gasoline
- To properly lubricate the engine
- To assist in priming the cylinders
- To mix the fuel and air ← correct
Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked?
- Oil level ← correct
- Exhaust discharge
- Flow of cooling water
- All of the above
How can the accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries be prevented?
- By natural or mechanical ventilation ← correct
- Covering the batteries in a nonconducting, solid enclosure
- Mounting the batteries in a position as high as possible
- Securing the batteries to vibration reducing mounting brackets
Why must the exhaust pipe be gas tight throughout its entire length on your vessel?
- Entry of air may cause the engine to vapor lock
- Carbon monoxide may enter the interior of the vessel ← correct
- The pipe joint gaskets may be blown
- To prevent bilge water from entering the exhaust pipe
Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are __________.
- prohibited ← correct
- permitted for draining fuel from lines
- permitted for drawing fuel samples
- permitted for bleeding air from lines
On small passenger vessels what device must you install under carburetors, other than the downdraft type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage?
- A drip collector ← correct
- A funnel and a tin can
- A sponge
- Suitable absorbent material
Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be installed __________.
- independent of the hull ← correct
- on a level higher than the engine
- in a cool and insulated place
- so the fuel line to the engine leads from a shut-off valve at the bottom of the tank
If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel tank, then the tank should be fitted with __________. (Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)
- a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel gauge ← correct
- An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel
- A good air vent of sufficient diameter
- A glass tube to visually observe the fuel
A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel should terminate __________.
- As close to the deck plates as possible
- Below the waterline to eliminate the accumulation of explosive vapors
- Midway between the fuel tank and the engine
- On the hull exterior as high above the waterline as practicable and remote from any hull opening ← correct
On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of __________.
- plastic, rubber, or seamless steel tubing
- stainless steel, iron, or brass
- copper, plastic, stainless steel, or galvanized iron
- annealed tubing of copper, nickel-copper, or copper nickel ← correct
Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel lines?
- Annealed copper tubing
- Nickel-copper tubing
- Copper-nickel tubing
- Seamless steel pipe or tubing ← correct
On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are required at both the tank and engine connections of all internal combustion engine fuel lines?
- Clean out plates
- Fuel gauges
- Drain valves
- Shut-off valves ← correct
On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers __________.
- must be located at the lowest portion of the tank
- must have only a gravity-forced flow
- must be extended to an external area of the hull
- are permitted ← correct
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other nonmetallic piping materials __________.
- may replace metal pipe or tubing in any installation
- may not be used on inspected vessels
- may only be used in non-vital systems ← correct
- are preferable to steel pipe
Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have terminal connections that are __________.
- the spring slip style
- a permanent type ← correct
- located so as to be easily greased
- temporarily clamped on the top of the battery
According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable carburetor drip collectors should drain to __________.
- the engine air intakes ← correct
- the fuel tanks
- a separate pipe leading to the bilges
- a suitable absorbant material
On small passenger vessels which type of internal combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip collector?
- Updraft
- Two barrel
- Four barrel
- Downdraft ← correct
The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage batteries is best prevented by __________.
- covering the batteries in a nonconducting, solid enclosure
- mounting the batteries in a position as high as possible
- natural or mechanical ventilation ← correct
- securing the batteries to vibration reducing mounting brackets
A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a flame __________.
- stopper
- screen ← correct
- filter
- restrictor
If a vessel is not equipped with an automatically- activated emergency lighting system, the vessel must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- operated only in daylight hours
- provided with gasoline or kerosene lights
- equipped with luminous tape markings on emergency equipment
- equipped with individual battery- powered lights ← correct
It is recommended that drip collectors required on all updraft carburetors be drained by __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- a device to automatically return all drip to the engine air intakes ← correct
- no means whatsoever
- a separate pipe leading to the bilges
- a pump leading to a point outside the hull
Air-cooled radiators for gasoline propulsion engine cooling __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- must be approved for marine use
- must have a double fan installation
- must be filled with fresh water
- are permitted on vessels less than 65 feet carrying not more than 12 passengers ← correct
What is required for a dry exhaust pipe? (small passenger vessel regulations)
- Noncombustible hangers and supports ← correct
- Insulation from combustible material
- An automatic damper
- A rain spray and spray cap
Gasoline fuel tank vents should terminate __________.
- in the engine compartment
- in the fuel tank space
- above or outside the hull ← correct
- at the most convenient location
You discover a leak in the fuel line to the engine. You should FIRST __________.
- activate the CO2 system
- make a temporary repair with canvas or tape
- start the bilge pump
- close the fuel valve at the tank ← correct
Which device is required in the fuel supply line at the engine?
- Flow meter
- Shut-off valve ← correct
- Pressure gauge
- Filter
Heavy Weather Operations
9 questions · 8% of the paper
If your propeller is racing in rough weather, which action should you take?
- Ignore it, this is acceptable in rough weather
- Stop your engine until the rough weather passes
- Increase your engine speed
- Decrease your engine speed ← correct
In a following sea, a wave has overtaken your vessel and thrown the stern to starboard. To continue along your original course, which action should you take?
- Use more right rudder ← correct
- Use more left rudder
- Decrease speed
- Increase speed
Which term defines when a vessel is swinging from side to side off course due to quartering seas?
- Yawing ← correct
- Rolling
- Pitchpoling
- Broaching
Which term defines when a boat turns broadside to heavy seas and winds, thus exposing the boat to the danger of capsizing?
- Trimmed
- Yawed
- Broached ← correct
- Pitchpoled
You are heading into the sea during rough weather. What may happen if there is too much weight forward in your small boat?
- The craft will rise rapidly over the wave
- The craft will broach
- The craft may plunge into the wave ← correct
- The craft will list severely
What is meant by the term "broaching to"?
- Having the vessel head toward the sea
- Having the vessel filled with water
- Running before a sea
- Being turned broadside to the sea ← correct
When making way in heavy seas you notice that your vessel's screw is being lifted clear of the water and racing. Which action will correct the situation?
- Decrease the vessel's speed ← correct
- Shift more weight forward
- Increase the vessel's speed
- Shift the rudder back and forth several times
When making way in heavy seas you notice that your vessel's screw is being lifted clear of the water and racing. Which action will correct the situation?
- Decrease the vessel's speed ← correct
- Increase the vessel's speed
- Shift the rudder back and forth several times
- Shift more weight forward
When running before a heavy sea, what will moving weights aft on the vessel accomplish?
- Reduce the yawing of the vessel ← correct
- Increase the yawing of the vessel
- Reduce the rolling of the vessel
- Increase the rolling of the vessel
Emergency Towing
22 questions · 8% of the paper
A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?
- Shift weight to the stern ← correct
- Throw excess weight overboard
- Shift weight to the bow
- Shift weight to the center of the boat
The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
This question is asked against Coast Guard illustration D025DG, which we cannot reproduce — the examination drawings are adapted from copyrighted works. To work it you need the illustration in front of you.
- A ← correct
- B
- C
- D
The vessel shown in the illustration has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines? Illustration D025DG
This question is asked against Coast Guard illustration D025DG, which we cannot reproduce — the examination drawings are adapted from copyrighted works. To work it you need the illustration in front of you.
- Position A ← correct
- Position B
- Position C
- Position D
The vessel shown in illustration D025DG has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is coming from her starboard beam. You are making more leeway than she. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines?
This question is asked against Coast Guard illustration D025DG, which we cannot reproduce — the examination drawings are adapted from copyrighted works. To work it you need the illustration in front of you.
- A ← correct
- B
- C
- D
You have taken another vessel in tow. Which is an indicator that the towing speed is too fast?
- The vessels are not in step
- The towed vessel goes "in irons"
- The tow line feels like it is "jumping" when touched
- The catenary comes clear of the water ← correct
The vessel shown in the illustration has broken down and you are going to take her in tow. The wind is on her starboard beam. She is making more leeway than you. Where should you position your vessel when you start running lines? Illustration D025DG
This question is asked against Coast Guard illustration D025DG, which we cannot reproduce — the examination drawings are adapted from copyrighted works. To work it you need the illustration in front of you.
- A
- B
- C
- D ← correct
The best line for towing small vessels is __________.
- three strand nylon
- double-braided nylon ← correct
- polypropylene
- manila
A term used to describe the dip in a towline that acts as a shock absorber is __________.
- catenary ← correct
- step
- shock dip
- bight
A towing vessel should be on the crest of a wave at the same time as its tow and in the trough at the same time. The term used to describe this is __________.
- tow strain
- catenary length
- being in step ← correct
- Williamson's Tow
A monkey fist is found on a __________.
- heaving line ← correct
- lead line
- manrope
- mooring line
In towing it is desirable for the tug and the tow to ride wave crests simultaneously because __________.
- shock loading on the tow line is reduced ← correct
- towing speed is improved
- the tow is more visible from the tug
- the catenary of the towline is reduced
Chafing gear is used to _________.
- increase mechanical advantage on a towing recovery wheel
- eliminate yawing of disabled tow
- protect towlines from wearing down against edges of vessel ← correct
- connects towline to trailer eye of disabled tow
When towing another vessel, the length of the towing line should be __________.
- as long as possible
- as short as possible under the circumstances and not over two wave lengths
- such that one vessel will be on a crest while the other is in a trough
- such that the vessels will be in step ← correct
A safety shackle is identified by its __________.
- shape
- pin ← correct
- certification stamp
- color code
The effect of ocean current is usually more evident on a tug and tow than on a tug navigating independently because the __________.
- speed of the tug and tow is less ← correct
- towline catches the current
- current causes yawing
- current will offset the tow
Under the forces of its own weight, the suspended length of line will fall into a shape known as a __________.
- polygon
- holding arc
- catenary curve ← correct
- parabolic curve
Catenary as applied to tow lines denotes the __________.
- dip of the line ← correct
- stretch of the line
- strain on the line
- length of the line
The lead of a tow bridle is usually redirected with a __________.
- bollard
- chock ← correct
- pad eye
- devil's claw
A tow that veers to the side on the end of the towline is said to __________.
- yaw ← correct
- surge
- sway
- swing
When a two-leg sling is used to lift a load, a sling 40 feet long is better than one of 30 feet because the __________.
- tension in the sling legs is less ← correct
- load can be lifted higher
- sling will be easier to attach
- sling will be easier to remove
The choice of length of tow bridle legs is governed by the __________.
- expected towing forces
- capability of retrieving gear
- freeboard of the unit being towed
- need to reduce yaw ← correct
When towing another vessel astern, the length of the towline should be __________.
- as long as possible
- such that one vessel will be on a crest while the other is in a trough
- such that the vessels will be "in step" ← correct
- not over two wave lengths in seas up to 10 feet
Marlinspike Seamanship
34 questions · 6% of the paper
How is a safety shackle identified?
- The design of the pin ← correct
- The certification stamp
- The shape
- The color code
Which term describes the rope which is rove through a tail block to be used with a bosun's chair?
- Strop
- Gantline ← correct
- Life line
- Whip
Which factor is most likely to impair the strength and durability of synthetic line?
- Dry rot
- Washing with mild soap
- Sunlight ← correct
- Mildew
What type of knot in the illustration is indicated by the Letter "N"? Illustration D030DG
This question is asked against Coast Guard illustration D030DG, which we cannot reproduce — the examination drawings are adapted from copyrighted works. To work it you need the illustration in front of you.
- Heaving line hitch
- Timber hitch
- Rolling bowline
- Stopper hitch ← correct
Which knot shown in the illustration represents a square knot? Illustration D030DG
This question is asked against Coast Guard illustration D030DG, which we cannot reproduce — the examination drawings are adapted from copyrighted works. To work it you need the illustration in front of you.
- P
- R
- W ← correct
- H
Which letter in illustration D030DG below represents a plain whipping?
This question is asked against Coast Guard illustration D030DG, which we cannot reproduce — the examination drawings are adapted from copyrighted works. To work it you need the illustration in front of you.
- J ← correct
- V
- E
- F
Which of the following describes a fid?
- A sharp pointed crowbar used to unlay wire rope
- A mallet used when splicing wire rope
- A tapered wooden pin used when splicing heavy rope ← correct
- A tapered steel pin used to separate wire rope
What type of knot in the illustration is indicated by the Letter "Q"? Illustration D030DG
This question is asked against Coast Guard illustration D030DG, which we cannot reproduce — the examination drawings are adapted from copyrighted works. To work it you need the illustration in front of you.
- Bowline ← correct
- Round knot
- Square knot
- Clove hitch
The amount of force a tug can exert on a stationary pull is called its __________.
- brake horsepower
- indicated horsepower
- shaft horsepower
- bollard pull ← correct
Which type of fiber towing hawser is preferred for towing astern?
- Manila
- Polypropylene
- Nylon ← correct
- Dacron
The "lay" of a line refers to __________.
- its normal location of stowage
- the direction of twist in the strands ← correct
- the manner in which it is coiled
- the manner in which it is rigged
Right-laid line should be coiled __________.
- clockwise ← correct
- counterclockwise
- either clockwise or counterclockwise
- on a reel
The strongest of the natural fibers is __________.
- cotton
- hemp
- manila ← correct
- sisal
In the manufacture of line, plant fibers are twisted together to form __________.
- cable
- line
- strands
- yarns ← correct
Nylon line can be dangerous because it __________.
- breaks down when wet
- kinks when wet
- is not elastic
- stretches ← correct
Which line would be least likely to kink?
- Braided ← correct
- Left-handed laid
- Right-handed laid
- Straight laid
Compared to manila line, size for size, nylon line __________.
- has less strength than manila line
- has more strength than manila line ← correct
- is equivalent to manila line
- will rot quicker than manila line
Which type of line will stretch the most when under strain?
- Polypropylene
- Dacron
- Nylon ← correct
- Manila
Under identical load conditions, nylon, when compared with natural fiber line, will stretch __________.
- less and have less strength
- more and have less strength
- more and have greater strength ← correct
- less and have greater strength
Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if __________.
- the eye of the second line is dipped ← correct
- the mooring lines are doubled
- the bollard has two horns
- one of the lines is a breast line
The size of wire rope is determined by the __________.
- number of strands
- number of wires in each strand
- circumference
- diameter ← correct
Which splice should you use in order to make a permanent loop in a line?
- Back splice
- Eye splice ← correct
- Long splice
- Short splice
If a mooring line should part while you are tying up at a dock, you should make a temporary eye by tying a __________.
- becket bend
- clove hitch
- bowline ← correct
- square knot
Which material makes the strongest mooring line?
- Sisal
- Manila
- Nylon ← correct
- Polyproylene
You need to make a fixed loop at the end of a line in order to use the line as a mooring line. You have insufficient time to make a splice. Which knot should you use?
- Clove Hitch
- Fisherman's Bend
- Bowline ← correct
- Round-turn and two half hitches
The disadvantage of using three strand nylon line for towing is its __________.
- inherent weakness
- tendency to rot if left damp
- danger to crew if it parts ← correct
- strength and shock absorbing abilities
When a line is subject to wear where it passes through a mooring chock, it should be __________.
- wormed, parceled, and served
- wrapped with heavy tape
- wrapped with chafing gear ← correct
- wrapped in leather
Which term describes a part of a natural fiber line?
- Lacings
- Lays
- Strands ← correct
- Twines
Which term describes a part of a natural fiber line?
- Twines
- Fibers ← correct
- Lays
- Lacings
Which term describes a part of a natural fiber line?
- Yarns ← correct
- Twines
- Lacings
- Lays
What is used to prevent wear on towlines that bear on hard surfaces?
- Chafing gear ← correct
- Chocks
- Grease
- Boots
The line with the most stretch is __________.
- manila
- nylon ← correct
- polypropylene
- dacron
The knot at the end of the heaving line used to pass the towing hawser is called a __________.
- monkey's fist ← correct
- ball or baseball knot
- heaving knot
- three strand Turk's head
On small sailing vessels, the PRIMARY reason for using nylon in a combination chain-nylon anchor line is to __________.
- provide elasticity ← correct
- increase the strength
- reduce the cost
- reduce the weight
Maritime Law, Certificates and Documents
34 questions · 4% of the paper
What is considered a Serious Marine Incident?
- A vessel experiencing bottom suction over a sandbar that does not result in injuries and/or any damage to the vessel
- An injury to a crewmember, passenger, or other person which requires professional medical treatment beyond first aid ← correct
- An allision that results in $500 damage to a boat dock
- None of the above
Besides the chemical testing of a mariner's breath for alcohol, what other specimen testing for alcohol is acceptable that can be taken onboard the vessel after a Serious Marine Incident?
- Hair
- Saliva ← correct
- Blood
- None of the above
Which uninspected vessel is required to carry an efficient daylight signaling lamp?
- 299 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage
- 99 GT towing vessel on Inland Waters
- 199 GT towing vessel on a coastwise voyage
- 199 GT towing vessel on an international voyage ← correct
Official proof of an American vessel's nationality is contained in which document?
- Certificate of Inspection
- Official Log
- Shipping Articles
- Certificate of Documentation ← correct
Which U.S. agency assigns an official number to a vessel?
- Coast Guard ← correct
- Treasury Department
- American Bureau of Shipping
- Collector of Customs
Which is the requirement for the name and hailing port of a documented commercial vessel?
- It is required to be marked on the stern with the name of the vessel marked on both bows ← correct
- It is required to be marked on the keel, stern, and both bows
- It is required to be marked on both bows and on the keel
- It is not required to be marked anywhere on the vessel
What is the period of validity of a Merchant Mariner Credential?
- 2 years
- 1 year
- 5 years ← correct
- 3 years
The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air is known as the __________.
- fire point
- flash point ← correct
- lower explosive limit
- threshold limit value
Holes in the bulwark, which allow deck water to drain into the sea, are __________.
- doggers
- fidleys
- freeing ports ← correct
- swash ports
Which document lists all the lifesaving equipment required for a vessel?
- Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- American Bureau of Shipping Classification Certificate
- International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
- Certificate of Registry
All U.S. Flag vessels engaged in foreign trade are required to have a(n) __________.
- enrollment
- license
- registry ← correct
- sea letter
The official number of a documented vessel is __________.
- not required to be marked anywhere on the vessel
- required to be permanently marked on the vessel's structure ← correct
- required to be painted on the vessel's stern
- required to be painted on the vessel's bow
The name and hailing port of a documented commercial vessel is __________.
- not required to be marked anywhere on the vessel
- required to be marked on both bows and on the keel
- required to be marked on the stern with the name of the vessel marked on both bows ← correct
- required to be marked on the keel, stern, and both bows
You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has expired. You wish to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If the Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue a __________.
- Certificate of Seaworthiness
- Limited Certificate of Inspection
- Temporary Certificate of Inspection
- Permit to Proceed ← correct
Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a temporary certificate. This __________.
- expires six months after it is issued
- must be exchanged for a regular Certificate of Inspection before going foreign or out of state
- has the full force of a regular Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- must be posted in the vicinity of the officers' licenses
Which document shows the minimum required crew a vessel must have to navigate from one port in the United States to another?
- Articles
- Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- Crew List
- Register
Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a Temporary Certificate of Inspection. The Temporary Certificate __________.
- has the full force of the regular Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- expires six months after it is issued
- must be exchanged for a regular Certificate of Inspection within 3 months
- is retained in the custody of the Master
You are signing on crew members. The minimum number of people required aboard, and the qualifications of each, is listed on the __________.
- Crew list
- Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- Articles of Agreement
- fo'c'sle card
To determine the number of portable fire extinguishers required on an inspected vessel, you should check the __________.
- hot work permit
- Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
- Muster List ("Station Bill")
You are signing on a crew. You can determine the minimum number and qualifications of the crew that you are required to carry by consulting which document?
- Crew list
- Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- Articles of Agreement
- fo'c'sle card
Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be certified by __________.
- the Coast Guard
- the American Bureau of Shipping
- the shipyard fire department
- a certified marine chemist ← correct
In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds __________.
- 10% of weight of full bottle
- 15% of weight of full bottle
- 20% of weight of charge
- 10% of weight of charge ← correct
In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route is defined as one that is __________.
- not more than 50 statute miles from shore in the Gulf of Mexico
- on ocean waters more than 200 nautical miles from shore in the Gulf of Alaska
- not more than 20 statute miles from the nearest safe harbor in the Pacific Ocean
- not more than 20 nautical miles offshore in the ocean ← correct
The maximum number of passengers a "T-Boat" may carry __________.
- is stated on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- is the number authorized in the Navigation Rules
- depends on the number of lifejackets you carry
- is the number authorized by your license
A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a shipyard under its own power should __________.
- make the trip only after obtaining a "Permit to Proceed to Another Port for Repair", Form CG-948 ← correct
- get underway as soon as possible
- hire a tug and pilot instead
- request an Expiration Certificate if the vessel displays a tendency to sink
How do you know how many passengers you may carry? (small passenger vessel regulations)
- As many as possible
- The amount on the Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- Use your own judgment
- No more than 40 passengers
A small passenger vessel engaging in international voyages must be dry docked at least once every __________.
- 6 months
- 12 months ← correct
- 36 months
- 60 months
Whenever practicable, the Certificate of Inspection must be posted __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- as high as feasible in the pilot house
- near the area where passengers embark
- in any location desired
- in a conspicuous place where it will most likely be observed by the passengers ← correct
The Certificate of Inspection issued to a vessel carrying more than six passengers must be __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- posted on board under glass, if practical ← correct
- posted on the dock where passengers are embarked
- retained at the owner's principal place of business
- kept on file by the Collector of Customs
When a vessel is not in compliance with its Certificate of Inspection, which certificate may be issued to allow its movement to a repair facility? (small passenger vessel regulations)
- Change of Employment
- Permit to Proceed ← correct
- Application for Inspection
- Temporary Certificate of Inspection
Which document will describe lifesaving equipment located aboard your vessel?
- Muster List ("Station Bill")
- Certificate of Inspection ← correct
- Forecastle Card
- Clearance Papers
The inspection of small passenger vessels of 60 feet in length carrying more than twelve persons on an international voyage is required by the Coast Guard __________. (small passenger vessel regulations)
- once every 6 months
- once every year ← correct
- once every 2 years with a minimum of one reinspection during that period
- once every 3 years with a minimum of two reinspections during that period
The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.
- tonnage
- reserve buoyancy
- draft ← correct
- freeboard
For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.
- waterline ← correct
- freeboard deck
- Plimsoll mark
- amidships section
Radiotelephone Communications
28 questions · 4% of the paper
What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?
- Key the microphone several times before transmitting again.
- Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again.
- Report the problem to the head electrician.
- Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract attention. ← correct
What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?
- Mayday ← correct
- Red Alert
- Security
- Pan
While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening watch on which of the following channels?
- 6 (156.3 MHz)
- 12 (156.6 MHz)
- 14 (156.7 MHz)
- 16 (156.8 MHz) ← correct
What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF-FM radio transmissions?
- 1 watt
- 5 watts
- 15 watts
- 25 watts ← correct
Which action should you take after sending a false distress alert on VHF?
- Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A.
- Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70.
- Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13.
- Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. ← correct
If you know that the vessel you are about to call on the VHF radio maintains a radio watch on both the working and the calling frequencies, which frequency should you call on?
- Calling frequency
- Working frequency ← correct
- Distress frequency
- Urgency frequency
What is the average range of vessel-to-vessel VHF-FM radio communications?
- 15 to 20 miles ← correct
- 60 to 90 miles
- 90 to 120 miles
- 120 to 150 miles
The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel __________.
- 13
- 16 ← correct
- 18
- 22
A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the __________.
- U.S. Coast Guard
- Federal Communications Commission ← correct
- Radio Technical Commission for Marine Services
- Maritime Mobile Service Commission
A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) __________.
- routine message
- urgent message
- distress message
- safety message ← correct
A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix when sent by radiotelephone?
- Pan-Pan (3 times)
- Securite Securite Securite ← correct
- TTT TTT TTT
- No special prefix
The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on channel __________.
- 13
- 9A
- 22A ← correct
- 44
If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word __________.
- Mayday
- Pan-pan
- Securite ← correct
- Safety
You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This indicates that __________.
- a message about the safety of navigation will follow ← correct
- a message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow
- the sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance
- you should secure your radiotelephone
The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word __________.
- Mayday
- Pan ← correct
- Safety
- Interco
Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with __________.
- Mayday-Mayday- Mayday
- Pan-Pan (3 times) ← correct
- Securite-Securite- Securite
- SOS-SOS-SOS
In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN- PAN indicates that __________.
- a ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance
- a calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person ← correct
- the message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation
- the message following is a meteorological warning
Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the maximum power of all transmitters used shall be not more than __________.
- 25 watts ← correct
- 50 watts
- 75 watts
- 100 watts
What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship communications on channel 13?
- 1 watt or less ← correct
- 5 watts
- 10 watts
- 20 watts
A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word __________.
- "PAN-PAN"
- "MAYDAY"
- "SOS"
- "SECURITY" ← correct
Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?
- Securite
- Mayday ← correct
- Breaker
- Pan
What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
- 50 meters
- 25 meters
- 20 meters ← correct
- 12 meters
You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?
- Safety message ← correct
- Urgency message
- Distress message
- Routine message
What is the calling and distress frequency on a single side band (SSB) marine radiotelephone?
- 1492 kHz
- 1892 kHz
- 2082 kHz
- 2182 kHz ← correct
What is maximum power allowed by the FCC for VHF- FM radio transmissions?
- One watt
- Five watts
- 15 watts
- 25 watts ← correct
The radiotelephone urgency signal is __________.
- mayday
- pan pan ← correct
- securite
- seelonce feenee
Which towing vessels are NOT required to have an internal communication system between the engine room and the operating station?
- Twin-screw vessels that have operating station control for both engines ← correct
- Vessels on limited routes
- Fleet boats making or breaking tows
- Vessels serving a single company or facility
You receive a call from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words "Pan-Pan" (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?
- Safety signal
- Urgency signal ← correct
- Distress signal
- Red alert signal
Distress and Special Signals
9 questions
When should you use distress flares and rockets?
- Immediately upon abandoning the vessel
- When there is a chance of being seen by rescue vessels ← correct
- At one-hour intervals
- At half-hour intervals
Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?
- Hand-held red flare
- Red aerial pyrotechnic flare
- Self-contained rocket-propelled parachute red flare
- Hand-held orange smoke distress flare ← correct
A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the __________.
- distress position
- spoken words "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday" ← correct
- ship's name
- ship's call letters
You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you take?
- Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message
- Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may acknowledge receipt ← correct
- Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have acknowledged
- Do not acknowledge receipt because you are too far away to take action
What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?
- 500 kHz
- 1347 kHz
- 2182 kHz ← correct
- 2738 kHz
Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by radiotelephone are preceded by __________.
- MAYDAY
- PAN-PAN
- SECURITE ← correct
- SOS
What should you do if you have transmitted a distress call a number of times on channel 16 and have received no reply?
- Repeat the message using any other channel on which you might attract attention. ← correct
- Key the microphone several times before transmitting again.
- Turn up the volume on the receiver before transmitting again.
- Report the problem to the head electrician.
You are underway in mid-ocean, when you hear a distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the sender is 20 miles away. What action should you take?
- Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message. ← correct
- Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast station may acknowledge receipt.
- Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the distress have acknowledged.
- Do not acknowledge because you are too far away to take action.
What is the spoken emergency signal for a distress signal over a VHF radio?
- Red Alert
- Security
- Mayday ← correct
- Pan
Emergency Procedures
4 questions
You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. You should approach __________.
- to leeward of the wrecked vessel
- at a speed of at most one-half that of the wrecked vessel
- at a speed of at least that of the wrecked vessel
- to windward of the wrecked vessel ← correct
One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY __________.
- apply left rudder
- throw the crew member a life preserver ← correct
- begin backing your engines
- position your vessel to windward and begin recovery
On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, you should __________.
- immediately reverse the engines
- stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side ← correct
- increase speed to full to get the vessel away from the person
- first put the rudder hard over in either direction
What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the Master and crew?
- Emergency Instructions ← correct
- A tide table for the area
- Instructions on artificial respiration
- The location of the first aid kit
Man Overboard
8 questions
One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY take which action?
- Throw the crew member a life preserver ← correct
- Position your vessel to windward and begin recovery
- Apply left rudder
- Begin backing your engines
Which maneuver will return your vessel to a person who has fallen overboard in the shortest time?
- Make two 180° turns
- A Williamson Turn
- A single turn with hard rudder ← correct
- Put the engine(s) crash astern, no turn
On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, which action should you take?
- Immediately reverse the engines
- Increase speed to full to get the vessel away from the person
- First put the rudder hard over in either direction
- Stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side ← correct
You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. You should __________.
- put the rudder amidships and check the swing
- stop the engines and prepare to maneuver to pick up the man in the water
- shift your rudder ← correct
- increase to maximum speed
In a Williamson turn, the rudder is put over full until the __________.
- vessel has turned 90°From her original course
- vessel has turned 60°From her original course ← correct
- vessel is on a reciprocal course
- emergency turn signal sounds
The biggest problem you generally encounter while towing a single tow astern is __________.
- the catenary dragging on the bottom
- swamping of the tow
- the tow tending to dive
- yaw ← correct
You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
- One
- Two
- Three ← correct
- Four
What is the spoken emergency signal for a "man overboard" on the VHF radio?
- Man Overboard
- Security
- Mayday
- Pan-Pan ← correct
Pollution Prevention and Sanitation
11 questions
Failure to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill can carry a prison sentence of what duration?
- Not more than 1 year
- Not more than 2 years
- Not more than 3 years
- Not more than 5 years ← correct
When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
- Owners only
- Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation ← correct
- Master only
- Credentialed officers only
According to U.S. regulations, what vessels are required to have the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard?
- Foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service
- Foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters
- U.S. vessels 26 feet or more in length ← correct
- U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length
You are operating a non-ocean-going vessel, how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able to retain on board?
- 25%
- 50%
- 75%
- 100% ← correct
Which method requires prior approval to be used when cleaning up an oil spill?
- Sorbent booms
- Suction equipment
- Chemical agents ← correct
- Skimmers
The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to what duration?
- 5 years ← correct
- 3 years
- 2 years
- 1 years
What represents poor sanitary procedures?
- Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge. ← correct
- Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may gather.
- Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water.
- After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water of at least 170°F (76.7°C).
Normally, where is the potable water systems directly connected to?
- A freshwater sanitary system
- The vessel's fire-main system
- The potable water tank ← correct
- The feed-water system
Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?
- Type I
- Type II
- Type III ← correct
- Type IV
If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you may be imprisoned up to __________.
- 1 year
- 2 years
- 3 years
- 5 years ← correct
The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to notify the Coast Guard can lead to a monetary fine and imprisonment up to __________.
- 5 years ← correct
- 3 years
- 2 years
- 1 years
Practice only — this is not a Coast Guard examination and passing it certifies nothing. Questions marked as real examination questions are from the National Maritime Center's current sample examination for Q360. The rest are from the Coast Guard's own examination bank as it stood before it was withdrawn, each kept only after its answer was checked against the current regulation or Coast Guard publication named beneath it; questions the current material could not settle were left out.